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📐 Mathematics  ·  Inverse Trigonometric Functions  ·  JEE

Simplify tan-1(1/2) + tan-1(1/3).

Answer: pi/4.

  • A pi/4
  • B pi/3
  • C pi/2
  • D pi/6

Correct answer: A. pi/4

Explanation: Using tan-1 x + tan-1 y = tan-1[(x+y)/(1-xy)] with x=1/2, y=1/3: (1/2+1/3)/(1-1/6) = (5/6)/(5/6) = 1. So the sum is tan-1(1) = pi/4 (valid since xy=1/6<1).

y = sin⁻¹x: Principal Value Branchxyx=-1x=1y=-π/2y=π/2Domain restricted to [-1,1]; range restricted to [-π/2,π/2] - this restriction is what makes the inverse exist

The graph of sin⁻¹x is confined to a narrow domain [-1,1] (since sine itself only takes values in that range) and range [-π/2,π/2] (the principal value branch chosen to make sine one-one and invertible there).

Concept context

Restricting trig functions to make them invertible, the principal value branches of sin-inverse, cos-inverse, tan-inverse, and friends, and the key identities relating them.

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