Zaymiey

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Integral from 0 to π/2 of sin<sup>n</sup>(x)/(sin<sup>n</sup>(x)+cos<sup>n</sup>(x)) dx =

Answer: π/4.

  • A 0
  • B π/4
  • C π/2
  • D 1

Correct answer: B. π/4

Explanation: King's rule: let I = ∫₀<sup>π/2</sup> sinⁿx/(sinⁿx+cosⁿx)dx. Replace x→(π/2−x): get ∫cosⁿx/(cosⁿx+sinⁿx)dx. Adding both: 2I = ∫₀<sup>π/2</sup>1 dx = π/2. So I = π/4.

xyabArea = integral of f(x) dxRectangles approximate the area (Riemann sum)

The exact area under the curve from a to b (shaded) is approximated by a few rectangles, the Riemann sum idea behind the definite integral.

Concept context

Indefinite and definite integrals, areas under curves

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